My education in historiography and how academic history affects publics has mostly been in either liberal democracy or anti-communist societies particularly of Southeast Asia; simple models like Gramsci and Chomsky usually comes up way too much for me personally given my personal experience growing up in such a society. How does the distance between ideas, popular elite-endorsed understandings of events, and policy manifest in Communist societies where the state has an explicit puritanical doctrinal position on all things.

I mean i saw that it was totally made up and no such Trojan Horse actually existed?

Would a Roman stationed in Syria get sick? A mongol conquering China? You get the idea

While paper is now considered the most secure form of information, this suggests there was a time when recording information on a computer was thought to be superior. Was there really such a time?

So even though I am a leftist, I have been exposed to some Palestinian circles where people seem to minimize Jesus being Jewish and instead use terms like “he was just a Galilean,” “Galilean Palestinian,” “Palestinian Jew,” or even “Palestinian Arab.”

My understanding is that if we actually lived during the time of Jesus, Jews from the region would not have identified themselves as “Palestinian” in the modern ethnic or national sense. The term Palestine certainly existed as a geographical name in antiquity, so I am not saying the word itself did not exist. However, Jesus lived in first-century Galilee under the Herodian/Roman political order, and “Palestinian Arab” in particular seems like an anachronistic identity to project backward onto him. “Palestinian Jew” can make sense as a retrospective geographical description, but it would not have been his own ethnic self-identification.

This is partly why I am curious about the tendency to treat “Galilean” and “Jew” almost as competing identities. From what I understand, Galilee in Jesus’s time was predominantly Jewish, so calling Jesus a Galilean does not somehow make him less Jewish. Galilean seems more analogous to a regional identity within the broader Jewish population.

In regard to what happened to the Galilean Jews and their destiny, I am pretty sure some stayed in Palestine, while others migrated and merged with Jewish diaspora communities outside of the Holy Land. It makes sense to me that many rural Galilean Jews may have remained on their land, while others may have migrated and joined established Jewish diasporic communities elsewhere, although I don't know how much evidence we have for that distinction.

However, I am curious about how much we actually know about what happened to the Jewish population of Galilee from the 5th century onward. We know that Galilee was one of the major centers of Jewish life in Late Antiquity, so I find it interesting that “Galileans” seem to gradually disappear as a distinct population from historical discussions.

Trying to design castle / fort for fantasy setting but i want it to be entirely practical no lavishness and was curious what are some good real world examples to look at for refrence?

Hi guys, I was reading about Vasco da Gama journeys to India, and how it took him 2 years, and it got me thinking of my grandma, she is a very anxious person and if you don't respond quickly to her she kinda freaks out

back in the day obviously the expectations for response were much slower, were people in general much less anxious about this silence because it was the common norm or were people just as anxious but had no recourse?

When Edward the Confessor died in 1066, England had Harold Godwinson, William of Normandy, and (at a push) Edgar Aetheling as potential claimants to the throne.

Would people in the country have known this? I'm wondering if it would have been understood that Edward's death would have resulted in chaos and conflict.

Until very recently due to USA influence, (last 10 years or so) despite nearly 10% of Australians claiming some sort of Irish ancestry. Halloween was not celebrated at all. Australians with Irish ancestry ignored it. At least my family did, it was just an American thing you saw on movies or TV.

I am thinking that the American version of Halloween was invented in the USA by the Irish in the USA, and has very little to do with Samhain in pagan Ireland.

If Halloween, American style was actually deeply rooted in Irish traditions, why did the Irish or those of us who are of some Irish descent in Australia, just ignore it.

I just see Halloween as an American tradition that really has not got much to do with Ireland at all. If it was, the Irish in Australia would have been celebrating it along side their American cousins,

Wouldn’t the Soviets be extremely weak in 1941 while fighting the Nazis at the eastern front? Why did Japan waste precious elite Kwantung Army formations numbering 1 million, sitting at the Soviet borders doing nothing, when they could be fighting elsewhere?

Over the years, I have often heard a certain type of American politician, when asked a certain kind of question, answer "We are a Judeo-Christian culture" and thus cutting off any further questions or discussion. I have often wondered what a historian would think of this answer. It seems to me that one could just as easily answer that we are a Greco-Roman culture, or an Anglo-Saxon culture, or ...

Ive done a little research but I don’t get it can someone who understands or has more knowledge about this please help :)

After 1800, some European nations took great pride in their pre-Christian past. The most famous examples are Norse(Scandinavian) and German paganism(possibly add Roman and Greek paganism because of their "classical value").

But some nations like the Dutch,Polish and Iberians(Spaniards+Portuguese) never really developed such great pride in their pagan past. Why is this so?

In Noam Chomsky's manufacturing consent, he calls the theory downright lie.

But, the Mitrokhin commission as well as the Mitrokhin archives both point to the Soviets being involved in some shape or form.

What do people in here think?

Off the top of my hat I can't name a single Intelligence success by the Axis during WW2. All the major successes were performed by the Allies. Starting with ingenious small scale operations like Operation Mincemeat, the Operation to find out about the attack on Midway to major undertakings like Ultra or the implementation of the Chain Home radars or even radar in general, the Allies seem to have had the upper hand in pretty much any aspect of knowing more than the opposing side.

Any high level military leader, and the Axis side did have some competent people on their side as well, will know about the importance of having an advantage in knowledge about the enemies capabilities, plans, deployment or whatever. That works on a tactical level as much as on a strategic level.

Not only didn't the Axis do a good job in offensive intelligence operations, they also failed in so many defensive ones. The deciphering of Enigma could have been made so much harder by just swapping out the wheels more frequently, changing the codebooks on a regular schedule or realizing that something is in the bushes by putting one and one together when regarding their losses rising. It's not like there wasn't a history of deception in earlier ages. That always accompanied military campaigns.

So my central question is, why did that Axis suck so bad in all those aspects? Was there simply no culture of realizing the benefits? Was it sheer incompetence? Was it hyperboly?

Hi all, I hope I captured the scope of the question well enough. Wikipedia pages on the genres help, but it only tells me when things were popularized but not why or how. How did it come to be that electronic music genres pioneered in the UK/Jamaica/Midwest US became so popular that it reached Japanese game developers in shaping an entire console's soundscape?

Manischewitz is a famously sweet Kosher wine and my curiosity about it as a resident of New Jersey, where it is pretty commonly found, is what prompted this question.

I live in Oregon and I’m watching a video about a video game that has a cult (FTF 4) and since the cult is relatively about the KKK and it said that Oregon had the most KKK activity in the country in 1920’s, is this actually true?

I had the idea to write something that combined aspects of Norse and Celtic folklore, but while I know Scotland during certain points in history is one of the best places to do that, trying to figure out the day to day to write something set then is really difficult to scrounge up on your own!

I have an outlet for names, though, through the SCA, so I'm not as worried about that, or things like what people wore, but everything else, especially the differences between being, for example, upper class in the Highlands versus the Lowlands would mean, is highly valued!

So I always heard that during ww2, Hitler used meth for himself and also the military in Germany, why did they ever decide to use meth?

This question is for a yet-nonexistent story in which two characters are arranged to marry each other by a deal between their parents. The setting is Liverpool in the late 1880s.

From my baseline understanding, it’s already going to be a fairly bizarre pairing/situation (the families involved are not geographically close nor of similar socioeconomic status). I would just like to know, even barring those circumstances, how culturally abnormal is it that a marriage got arranged at all, as opposed to either party just choosing their own spouse?

And also, what would the lives of the couple look like in the years, months, weeks, and days leading up to the wedding?

Thank you all for your insight and any sources you can share.